Quote:
Originally Posted by aesop
...I'm struggling here, farnz - are you suggesting that if new stock from one dealer is transferred to another in the form of a sale, then it is classified as "second-hand" under English law? ...
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Aesop,
I'm not a lawyer but it appears to me that if title in the goods had already passed from one party to another, in this instance from the Maltese dealer to TCC, then technically the goods are second-hand. Perhaps the law sees it another way.
I agree that there's no question of fitness for purpose; the statement was included for completeness.
Pete.